2020年江苏省七年级英语上册质量检测试卷(附听力、答案)

江苏省七年级英语上册质量检测试卷

（试卷满分：120分考试形式：闭卷）

第一部分（选择题，共70分）

一、听力部分（共20小题，每题1分，计20分）

A.听对话下面你将听到10小段对话，请同学们根据所听内容选择最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。

1. What holiday are they celebrating?

A. B. C.

2. Where is the cat?

A. B. C.

3. What does the woman want to buy?

A. B. C.

4. What is Mike good at?

A. B. C.

5. What is the woman’s jacket made of?

A. Silk.

B. Cotton.

C. Leather.

6. Where do Thomas and Kevin sit?

A. In the front of the classroom.

B. At the back of the classroom.

C. In the centre of the classroom.

7. When are Lucy and Henry talking?

A. In the morning.

B. In the afternoon.

C. In the evening.

8. How many bedrooms are there in the woman’s house?

A. Two.

B. Three.

C. Four.

9. What do Nancy and her sister look like?

A. They have long hair and blue eyes.

B. They have long hair and wear glasses.

C. They have short black hair and big eyes.

10. Why can the man NOT speak to Henry?

A. Henry is busy.

B. Henry is having a meeting.

C. This is not Henry’s number.

B. 听对话和短文回答问题你将听到一段对话和两篇短文，各听两遍。听每段对话或短文前你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你将有5秒钟的作答时间。

听下面一段对话，回答第11～12小题。

11. Why does Helen like staying in the living room?

A. Everyone can watch TV together there.

B. The chairs there are very comfortable.

C. She can sit and read books there.

12. What is Bill’s favourite room?

A. The kitchen.

B. The living room.

C. His bedroom.

13. A. 7:00 B. 7:15 C. 7:45

14. A. two B. four C. six

15. A. to play football B. to play basketball C. to do his homework

听下面一段短文，完成16～20小题。

16. When will the winter holiday start?

A. In January.

B. In February.

C. In March.

17. How long is the winter holiday?

A. For two weeks.

B. For four weeks.

C. For two months.

18. What do the speaker’s parents ask him to do on holiday?

A. To learn skiing.

B. To study English.

C. To study math.

19. What does the speaker want to do?

A. To do more traveling.

B. To do some reading.

C. To do some walking.

20. Where does John live?

A. In the US.

B. In Australia.

C. In England.

二、单词辩音。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）

从下列四个选项中选出一个划线部分发音和其他三个不同的选项，并将其涂到答题卡对应的位置上。

21. A. bear B. hear C. near D. year

22. A. bowl B. know C. brown D. borrow

23. A. other B. than C. thing D. together

24. A. cool B. food C. moon D. look

25. A. cap B. cake C. map D. dad

三、单项选择（共15小题，每小题1分，计15分）

从所给的四个选项中选出一个可以填入句中空白处的最佳答案。

26. —Tom, what’s your dream? —I want to be _______English teacher some day.

A. an

B. a

C. the

D. /

27. — Do you think the of this skirt matches my trousers?

— Of course! You always look beautiful in red.

A. size

B. design

C. price

D. color

28. Today is my mother’s ________ birthday. I will buy her a gift.

A. fourteen

B. fourteenth

C. forty

D. fortieth

29.—Where is your father? —He ______ the football match in the living room.

A. watches

B. is watching

C. watch

D. will watch

30. The song “Little apple” is very popular _______the young students.

A. among

B. between

C. from

D. to

31. There ______ lots of sheep and pigs on my uncle’s farm now.

A. be

B. am

C. is

D. are

32. I have a big brother. _______ name is Paul.

A. He

B. Her

C. His

D. Your

33. —What about playing basketball together?

—Oh, great idea! That sounds _______.

A. busy

B. cool

C. modern

D. pretty

34. Look! Here ______the bus.

A. come

B. is coming

C. comes

D. to come

35.—______ does your cousin usually go to work on foot?

—He says it’s good for his health.

A. Where

B. When

C. Why

D. How

36.The dress looks beautiful. Can I ______it ______before i buy it?

A. put; on

B. try; on

C. look; at

D. dress; up

37. — Can I have ________cakes, please?

— Sorry, there aren’t ________cakes in my fridge.

A. some; any

B. any; any

C. any; some

D. some; some

38. Don’t eat ______sugar. It’s bad for your health.

A. much too

B. too much

C. too many

D. many too

39. —How often do you go skating? —_______. I can’t skate at all.

A. Always

B. sometimes

C. Seldom

D. Never

40. —Hello, may I speak to Jane? —______

A. Who are you?

B. What’s wrong?

C. This is Jane speaking.

D. She is Jane.

四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）

阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从下列各题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。

I am a dragon. I live in Dragon Wood with my friends.

We like 41 ! And we’re going to have a football game. But nobody

knows how to 42 it. I need a friend to help me. Benjamin is my

best friend. He knows everything about football. But he lives far away

43 us. So I hav e to take him to Dragon Wood first.

It is Benjamin’s birthday today. And44 is going to have a

“party” in the evening. In a party, his friends will come around and sing to

him. They will also eat 45 and sweets!

I don’t want Benjamin to miss (错过) his party. So we leave right away. When we get back home, Benjamin 46 us everything about football. We can use our wings (翅膀). We can pass the ball with our tails. But we can’t touch the ball with our “47 ”. Most importantly of all: you wil l win(获胜) if you help each other.

Just like Benjamin tells us, we pass the ball to each other.

Dragons in the other team cannot stop us. ”GOOAAALLLL!” We win the game after I get a score. Everybody is so 48 . But I feel so sad. Benjamin has to go back home now. “I can’t have a 49 if my best friend doesn’t come! Benjamin invites me to his birthday party! I am happy again! 50 the food is not good for us dragons and the music hurts my ears. But you know what? It is still even more fun than football!

41. A. football B. basketball C. volleyball D. tennis

42. A. play B. carry C. knock D. share

43. A. to B. with C. from D. for

44. A. she B. he C. it D. they

45. A. bananas B. vegetables C. fishes D. cakes

46. A. asks B. says C. talks D. tells

47. A. arms B. heads C. hands D. legs

48. A. happy B. afraid C. sad D. lucky

49. A. match B. show C. party D. meeting

50. A. So B. But C.Or D. And

五、阅读理解（共10小题，每小题2分，计20分）

阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。

and ping-pon

51. When is English Day in Grace’s school?

A. On November 15th.

B. On December 15th.

C. On November 25th.

D. On December 25th.

52. What activity does Sam have next week in his school?

A. A book sale.

B. A basketball game.

C. An English Day.

D. A soccer game.

53. How long does the activity in Sam’s school last?

A. For three days.

B. For four days.

C. For five days.

D. For six days.

54. How many ball games does Lisa’s school have this weekend?

A. One.

B. Two.

C. Three.

D. Four.

55. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. The book sale is in the school library.

B. Alice likes to read books.

C. The ping-pong and the soccer games are on the same day.

D. The basketball game in Lisa’s school is on Sunday.

(B)

Jim, Tom and Jack are three little birds. One day, their mother says to

them, “Boys, it’s time for you to fly dow n and eat sand（沙子）.” Jim and Tom

do, but Jack says, “I can’t fly, and I don’t like sand.”“ But you have to,” the

mother says. “ Birds have no teeth. We must eat sand because it can help us

grind up some hard food.” But Jack is disobedient（不服从的）. He just cries,

“I can’t fly, and I don’t like sand!”

Day by day, the birds get older. One summer morning, the mother takes them to a place to play. Jim and Tom fly well, but Jack doesn’t. He flies behind them. He just cries, “Wait! Wait!”

Soon Jim, Tom and the mother get to the place. There they have fun eating, drinking, singing and playing. When it is late, they fly back to their home. What do you think they see when they get home? Yes! Jack is eating sand.

56. Why does the mother ask the birds to eat sand?

A. Because the sand is delicious.

B. Because she doesn’t want to look for food for them.

C. Because she wants to see to know their teeth are good.

D. Because eating sand can help them eat some hard food.

57. When the other birds go back home, they find Jack _______.

A. eating sand

B. sleeping

C. practicing flying

D. having delicious food

58. What’s the Chinese meaning of “ grind up”?

A. 寻找

B. 拾到

C. 磨碎

D. 扔掉

59. What do we know from the story?

A. Jack is a healthy bird. B Jack knows he is wrong

C. The mother doesn’t like the three birds.

D. The four birds are from different places.

60. What can be the best title（标题）of the story?

A. A Big Family

B. A disobedient Bird

C. How to Eat Sand

D. How to Take a Trip

第二部分（非选择题，共50分）

六、阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成表格中所缺信息，每空一词。（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）

My favorite holiday is the Spring Festival. It’s usually in February, but sometimes in January. Before the Spring Festival, we always clean the house to sweep away bad luck. In my family, my mother and I

spend one or two days cleaning the house. My grandparents are busy shopping. They go to markets to buy food, fireworks and many other things.

On the eve of the Spring Festival, my family celebrates with a traditional big family dinner. There’s so much delicious food that my mother cooks for us. Jiaozi is the most important. It means saying goodbye to the old year and welcoming the new year. We also watch the Spring Festival Gala as we wear our new clothes. Children are very happy when they get their lucky red packets with money. I am very lucky to have many relatives because I always get a lot of lucky money!

I love the Spring Festival and enjoy it very much.

七、阅读短文并回答问题。（共5小题，每小2分，计10分） We are taking pictures in the zoo now. My sister is taking pictures of pigs. Look, they are smiling!

Then my sister wants to take pictures of parrots. But I want to see tigers. She says, “Be good! Bob. We’ll see tigers .” She takes pictures of parrots. They flap (拍打)th eir wings but don’t talk. Then my sister takes pictures of tigers . I’m tired of watching my sister

take pictures. I run away as fast as a tiger! “Where are you going?” she shout s. “To the monkeys! Catch me if you can!” My sister catches me. “I’m ta king you home,” she says. “No! No! I’ll be good.”

“Take pictures of me! Please! I’ll even say cheese!” “Okay, okay. I’ll take a picture of you.” Do you want to see our pictures? Here they are! Can you find me? 71. Where are Bob and his sister?

_________________________________________ 72. What animal does Bob ’s sister take pictures of first? _________________________________________ 73. Why does Bob run away?

_________________________________________ 74. Does Bob ’s sister catch him?

_________________________________________

75. How many kinds of animals do they take pictures of?

_________________________________________

八、词汇(每空1分，计15分)

A．根据句意和汉语提示写出单词，完成句子。

76.There are about three _______students in this school.(百)

77. Her hobbies ________ music, dancing, sport and cooking. (包括)

78. ______of my father and mother are interested in reading books.(两者)

79. I want to do something _________from others in the winter holiday. (不同的)

80.There are lots of flowers and trees ________the Double Lake.(围绕)

B．根据句意和英文提示写出单词，完成句子.

81. My friend showed _______ some old photos of his family. (mine)

82. The ________machine goes wrong. It doesn’t work now. (wash)

83. It’s cold today. You need to wear your ______and hat, Danny. (glove)

84. The room is about eight ________long. (foot)

85. My uncle lives on the ______floor. He uses a life to go up and down.(twelve)

C．根据短文内容及首字母提示，填写所缺单词，使短文意思完整。每空限一词。

Dear Benny,

I’m sorry I don’t have e 86 time to write to you often. I am a 87 busy at school.

G 88 what? Next month, I’m coming to Beijing with my parents! I’m very excited. I really want to see the old b 89 and do some shopping. And I can’t wait to meet you! Will you take me to some interesting places?

All the b 90 ,

Maria

九、书面表达（共1题，计15分）

假如你是李平，请以“My ideal winter holi day”为题，用英语写篇70字左右的短文，向同学们介绍你对即将到来的寒假的展望。

提示：What is your ideal time to get up/ go to bed/…?

What do you plan to do in the holiday?

What kind of new clothes do you want to get? Why?

……

（注意：文中不得出现具体人名、校名等个人信息，否则不予评分。）

______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________

听力材料

A. 听对话下面你将听到10小段对话，请同学们根据所听内容选择最佳答案，将其序号填入题前的括号内。每段对话读两遍。

1. W: Merry Christmas, Tom!

M: The same to you, Sally.

2. W: Where is your cat?

M: He’s sitting on top of the fridge. He often likes to get up there.

3. M: How many apples would you like?

W: Please give me three kilos. I’d also like some banana s, please.

4. W: Is Mike good at tennis?

M: No. But he is really good at footbal l. He is the best player in our class.

5. M: I love your new jacket. Is it cotton or silk?

W: It’s silk.

6. M: Where does Thomas sit?

W: He sits next to Kevin in the front of the classroom.

7. M: Good morning, Lucy. How are you?

W: I’m fine, thanks, Henry.

8. M: How big is your house?

W: It is very large. It’s got three bedrooms and a garden at the back.

9. M: What does Nancy look like?

W: She looks just like her sister. They both have long hair and wear glasses.

10. M: Hello. May I speak to Henry?

W: Sorry, I’m afraid you have the wrong number. There is no one called H enry here.

B. 听对话和短文回答问题你将听到一段对话和两篇短文，各听两遍。听每段对话或短文前，你将有时间阅读相关小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题你将有5秒钟的作答时间。

听下面一段对话，回答第11～12小题。

M: What is your favourite room in your house, Helen?

W: I really like the living room.

M: Why is that?

W: We all sit there and watch TV in the evenings. I love the sofa and it is very comfortable.

M: I agree. It is a great place for the whole family to stay together.

W: What is your favourite room, Bill?

M: I like my bedroom best because I designed it myself.

W: Wow, that sounds wonderful. You’re really good at art.

听下面一段短文，完成下面的表格。

Daniel comes from London. He is now staying in Beijing with his family. He usually gets up at about 6:30 am and has breakfast at 7:00 am. Then he leaves home at 7:15 am.

He gets to school at 7:45 am. His first class begins at 8:00 am. There are four lessons in the morning. Morning classes are over at 11:50 am, and he has lunch 10 minutes later.

Afternoon classes begin at 1:30 pm. There are two lessons in the afternoon. They are over at 3:10 pm. Daniel usually stays at school for another hour to play football, and then goes home.

听下面一段短文，完成16～20小题。

Dear John,

Thank you so much for your email. I’m very happy to answer your questions. This year, we start our winter holiday at the beginning of February. It lasts about one month. I often go skiing, surf the Internet and

watch TV. This year my parents hope I go to study English in a school for two weeks, because my English is not good. But I want to do more traveling with my parents, to the US, Australia and so on. Of course I also wish to visit you in England one day.

Yours

Tom

参考答案

一、听力部分（共20小题，每题1分，计20分）

1. B

2. C

3.B

4.C

5.A

6.A

7.A

8.B

9. B 10. C 11.A 12.C 13.B 14.C15.A 16.B 17.B 18.B

19. A 20. C

二、单词辩音。（共5小题，每小题1分，计5分）

21.A 22.C 23.C 24.D 25.B

三、单项选择（共15小题，每小题1分，计15分）

26. A27. D 28. D 29. B 30. A 31.D 32.C 33.B 34.C 35.C 36.B 37.A 38.B39.D 40.C

四、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）

41.A 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. A 49. C 50.B

五、阅读理解（共10小题，每小题2分，计20分）

51. C 52.A 53. B 54. C 55.D 56. D 57.A 58.C 59.B 60.B

六、阅读下面短文，根据短文内容完成表格中所缺信息，每空一词。（共10小题，每小题1分，计10分）

61. favourite/Spring 62. spend 63. bad 64. grandma 65. On

66. have/eat 67. goodbye 68. watch 69. wear 70. money

七、阅读短文并回答问题。（共5小题，每小2分，计10分）

71. They are in the zoo.

72. She takes the pictures of pigs first.

73. Because he is tired of watching my sister take pictures.

74. Yes, she does.

75. They take pictures of two kinds of animals. They are pigs and tigers.

八、词汇(每空1分，计20分)

76. hundred 77. include 78. Both 79. different 80.around

81. me 82. washing 83. gloves 84. feet 85.twelfth

86. enough 87. always 88. Guess 89. buildings 90. best

九、书面表达（15分）

(切入分为12分）

回答问题和英语作文评分标准

任务型阅读回答问题部分具体评分标准如下：（每小题2分，共10分）

1.回答问题全面、正确（不一定与参考答案完全一致，但表达正确，拼写及标点符号全部正确）给

2分

2.回答较全面，有个别语法错误给1.5分

3.回答不够全面，有少量语法错误给1分

4.回答不全面，有较多语法错误给0.5分

5.回答完全错误，与问题毫无关系给0分

英语作文的评分标准

给分范围和要求：

第四档（优）：（12—15分）

完全完成了试题规定的任务。

——覆盖所有内容要点。

——准确使用丰富的词汇和语言结构。

——全文结构紧凑，有效地使用了语句间的连接成份，符合英语交际习惯；具备较强的语言运用能力。

第三档（良）：（8—11分）

完全完成了试题规定的任务。

——覆盖所有内容要点。

——恰当使用较丰富的词汇和语言结构。

——适当运用了语句间的连接成份，较好地达到了交际的目的。

第二档（中）：（4—7分）

基本完成了试题规定的任务。

——没能覆盖所有内容要点。

——词汇和语言结构不能完全满足写作任务的要求。

——文章不够连贯，影响对写作内容的理解。

第一档（差）：（0—3分）

未完成试题规定的任务。

——漏掉较多内容要点或写的内容与规定任务无关。

——词汇和语言结构错误较多。

——内容不连贯，无法传达有效信息。

作文评分标准：

1. 内容完整，语句流畅，无语法错误，书写规范，给12—15分

2. 内容较完整，语句较流畅，基本无语法错误，书写较规范，给8—11分;

3. 内容不完整，语句欠流畅，语法错误较多，书写较规范，给4—7分;

4. 只写出个别要点，语法错误较多，书写欠规范，只有个别句子可读或不知所云，给0-3分。

苏教版初一上英语期末试卷

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